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LilaMalvae
Kudos for your enlightening definition. Very helpful for future referrences.


I'm here to correct misconceptions. I'm glad I could help. ^_^
So you are saying that the Christian population is wrong about gays?
Yosephof
So you are saying that the Christian population is wrong about gays?

Or wrong about their religion?

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Yosephof
Yosephof
So you are saying that the Christian population is wrong about gays?

Or wrong about their religion?


The typical Christian is incorrect about their interpretation of the Bible in reference to homosexuality.
This is wrong. Do you really believe that sexual immorality does not include homosexuality? It goes against God's natural plan of a man and woman and does not bear life. Is sex for pleasure sin because counterceptives prevent childbirth? Yes. Then is sex with another man or woman sin because it does not produce childbirth? Yes, still. You've shown that homosexuality itself is not directly mentioned in these verses, but have you not read the new testament verses of homosexuals not inheriting the kingdom of God? I think that those verses in specific don't directly mention homosexuality as a sin because it's such an obvious connection. I really do.
RevivedMajin
This is wrong. Do you really believe that sexual immorality does not include homosexuality? It goes against God's natural plan of a man and woman and does not bear life. Is sex for pleasure sin because counterceptives prevent childbirth? Yes. Then is sex with another man or woman sin because it does not produce childbirth? Yes, still. You've shown that homosexuality itself is not directly mentioned in these verses, but have you not read the new testament verses of homosexuals not inheriting the kingdom of God? I think that those verses in specific don't directly mention homosexuality as a sin because it's such an obvious connection. I really do.
Prove it then.

Which verse are you speaking of?

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RevivedMajin
This is wrong. Do you really believe that sexual immorality does not include homosexuality? It goes against God's natural plan of a man and woman and does not bear life. Is sex for pleasure sin because counterceptives prevent childbirth? Yes. Then is sex with another man or woman sin because it does not produce childbirth? Yes, still. You've shown that homosexuality itself is not directly mentioned in these verses, but have you not read the new testament verses of homosexuals not inheriting the kingdom of God? I think that those verses in specific don't directly mention homosexuality as a sin because it's such an obvious connection. I really do.


I've read the verses. I've interpreted the verses. God condones all forms of love, the sexual immorality spoken of is lustful sex, etcetera. Your opinion that sex producing children is the only type of sex you can have, then what are infertiles to do? Constantly sin? Sex is not just to make children, and God never once says that. He made some people barren so that they couldn't have children.

As for the "homosexual offenders", the root words must be referred to.
Hmm...I agree with you in some respects, but in others I disagree...

AGREE: Throughout The Bible, there is a great amount of talk in general about hte sins of lust in general, not nevisarily of the homosexual kind. The thing is the times when it is mentioned it is used aas the fore runner for all the other sexual immorality verses. Also, homosexuality wasn't the sole reason for Sodom & Gemorah's downfall.

DISAGREE: There really was only one rule that God made towards the area of sex and that it is to be done within the context of marriage. Yet, the topic as addressed hundreds of times throughout The Bible. Why? Because He knew that this topic would be so prevelent all throughout history. Also, 1 Corinthians 6: 9-10 says,

Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers not male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
FlowingPeace
Hmm...I agree with you in some respects, but in others I disagree...

AGREE: Throughout The Bible, there is a great amount of talk in general about hte sins of lust in general, not nevisarily of the homosexual kind. The thing is the times when it is mentioned it is used aas the fore runner for all the other sexual immorality verses. Also, homosexuality wasn't the sole reason for Sodom & Gemorah's downfall.

DISAGREE: There really was only one rule that God made towards the area of sex and that it is to be done within the context of marriage. Yet, the topic as addressed hundreds of times throughout The Bible. Why? Because He knew that this topic would be so prevelent all throughout history. Also, 1 Corinthians 6: 9-10 says,

Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers not male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
That passage is mistranslated.

The originial word was 'malakai' hebrew for soft. Today that would imply feminine, as in homosexual, but then it would have been someone with soft morals, easily swayed.

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FlowingPeace
Hmm...I agree with you in some respects, but in others I disagree...

AGREE: Throughout The Bible, there is a great amount of talk in general about hte sins of lust in general, not nevisarily of the homosexual kind. The thing is the times when it is mentioned it is used aas the fore runner for all the other sexual immorality verses. Also, homosexuality wasn't the sole reason for Sodom & Gemorah's downfall.

DISAGREE: There really was only one rule that God made towards the area of sex and that it is to be done within the context of marriage. Yet, the topic as addressed hundreds of times throughout The Bible. Why? Because He knew that this topic would be so prevelent all throughout history. Also, 1 Corinthians 6: 9-10 says,

Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers not male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.


First, you must refer to the root word of homosexual. There are other sources that do this, my expertise is strictly Biblical. Also, you'll note that it says homosexual offenders. Have you thought of the possibility that it refers to those who offend homosexuals? Those who slander and hate them? The hatred of homosexuality, and the persecution of homosexuals, has been going on for a long time.
RevivedMajin
This is wrong. Do you really believe that sexual immorality does not include homosexuality? It goes against God's natural plan of a man and woman and does not bear life.
Then people who are infertile are immoral just for living, right? Or old married couples who can't have babies?

Quote:
Is sex for pleasure sin because counterceptives prevent childbirth? Yes. Then is sex with another man or woman sin because it does not produce childbirth? Yes, still.
First of all, I don't believe he ever said that homosexual sex wasn't a sin. Just that homosexuality wasn't. Why wouldn't heterosexual sex be a sin?

Furthermore, you do realize that manyMANY heterosexual couples have sex for pleasure. But people overlook this. And somehow it's less of a sin then homosexual sex. Explain this to me.


Quote:
You've shown that homosexuality itself is not directly mentioned in these verses, but have you not read the new testament verses of homosexuals not inheriting the kingdom of God? I think that those verses in specific don't directly mention homosexuality as a sin because it's such an obvious connection. I really do.
And when there's a robbery in my neighborhood, I assume it was committed by an African American or Hispanic, even though I can't prove that it was an African American or Hispanic that really did it. I really do.

There are homosexuals that go to hell, yes, just as there are African Americans and Hispanics that commit crimes. But not ALL homosexuals go to hell (by what I believe), and not all African Americans and Hispanics commit crimes.

Kthnx?
So...does this mean that us jews can still dissaprove of gays since leviticus still applies to us and what not? surprised xp
RevivedMajin
This is wrong. Do you really believe that sexual immorality does not include homosexuality? It goes against God's natural plan of a man and woman and does not bear life. Is sex for pleasure sin because counterceptives prevent childbirth? Yes. Then is sex with another man or woman sin because it does not produce childbirth? Yes, still. You've shown that homosexuality itself is not directly mentioned in these verses, but have you not read the new testament verses of homosexuals not inheriting the kingdom of God? I think that those verses in specific don't directly mention homosexuality as a sin because it's such an obvious connection. I really do.

Did you even read the first-post?
Merc Pip Bernadotte
FlowingPeace
Hmm...I agree with you in some respects, but in others I disagree...

AGREE: Throughout The Bible, there is a great amount of talk in general about hte sins of lust in general, not nevisarily of the homosexual kind. The thing is the times when it is mentioned it is used aas the fore runner for all the other sexual immorality verses. Also, homosexuality wasn't the sole reason for Sodom & Gemorah's downfall.

DISAGREE: There really was only one rule that God made towards the area of sex and that it is to be done within the context of marriage. Yet, the topic as addressed hundreds of times throughout The Bible. Why? Because He knew that this topic would be so prevelent all throughout history. Also, 1 Corinthians 6: 9-10 says,

Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers not male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
That passage is mistranslated.

The originial word was 'malakai' hebrew for soft. Today that would imply feminine, as in homosexual, but then it would have been someone with soft morals, easily swayed.
It has also been translated as 'young'. As in taking of young/child prostitutes as was commonly done in Greece and Rome at that time.
Donovinhs Knight
So...does this mean that us jews can still dissaprove of gays since leviticus still applies to us and what not? surprised xp
Sure. Even though it makes no sense to me at all. blaugh

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