Keltoi Samurai
PanDah K
Keltoi Samurai
PanDah K
Was he preparing to fight the British?
The only purpose for writing the second amendment was for securing the militias from disbanding since they were a large portion of the fighting forces against the British. We are no longer under British rule, so the second amendment should be invalid, in my opinion.
If the goal was to fight the British, and only to fight the British, then why was there no sunset clause on the 2nd Amendment? Why no references to times of war? More specifically, why give the People the right to keep and bear arms, instead of, say, "the right of the States to form and keep militias," if the goal was to keep the militias around?
Because back then we didn't have an army to provide weapons. The members of the militias used their own guns and weapons. After the revolutionary war we didn't have a "real Government" or an army, so we had to keep the militias active until we eventually to our act together.
As to why it is still a thing I do not know. But just because something is law does not justify it. In Saudi Arabia, homosexual "acts and behaviors" are, by law, punishable by death. Because it is the law do you find it justifiable?
But "the right for the States to form and keep militias" would accomplish the goal of keeping the militias from being disarmed, so why did those idiots give the right to keep and bear arms to the People when there were so much more obvious ways to achieve the goal of keeping the militias armed?
As for "no real government," well . . . Where in the world are you getting that?
And for the law in Saudi Arabia, I don't see how the laws of a foreign nation have any bearing on the US Constitution. For the record, no, I don't see that as moral. Also for the record, no, it bears no relevance to the discussion at hand.
Allow me to spell it all out for you.
First, I only know what I was taught in high school so I can't go into any extensive details as to why they decided to word the 2nd amendment the way they did. Nor would it matter because either way it would give people the right to carry firearms. My guess is that they didn't want to keep the militias active for very long after winning the way.
Second, after winning the war against the British, we didn't have a Government. We had a small group of men who held a leadership role in the revolution.
Third, I was simply presenting a rhetorical question to help give you another perspective to the situation. Allow me to explain it to you. You believe carrying guns for no purpose other than to carry a gun is justified because it is law that we are allowed to do as such. With that same kind of thinking in mind, it would make sense that the Saudi Arabian law is also justified by you because it is the law. Since you disagree with that statement, you indirectly agree that the "right to bear arms" is not justified simply because it is a law.