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paradigmwind

PostPosted: Sun Jul 23, 2006 10:35 pm


What on earth kind of proof do you have to make a conjecture like that time isn't infinite in the past direction? Simply because some particular model only goes back to time t=0 is absolutely no reason to think that there was nothing before that. t=-1 may not make any sense in the framework of a particular theory but that doesn't mean that we have any more proof that there was no t=-1 than someone who asserts that there was and that it involved exploding orbs or whatever. You are right anything like that would be on the wrong end of a singularity and we wouldn't be able to get at it. In fact thanks to the way we have built up our models we have convieniently made it so that the question doesn't even make sense to ask WITHIN THE FRAMEWORKS OF THOSE MODELS. That does not by any means mean that the question does not make sense. The question was not asked within the framework of gtr so we should not force the terms in the question to fit the definitions of that model. What you guys are saying is that the concept of before the big bang does not have a meaning within the framework of the standard model of cosmology but say it that way don't say it as though it were the unquestionable truth handed down from on high because it isn't and if you say it that way then your answer is no more meaninful or satisfying than "because god made it".
PostPosted: Mon Jul 24, 2006 5:41 pm


paradigmwind
What on earth kind of proof do you have to make a conjecture like that time isn't infinite in the past direction?

Because our best theory of gravity says that it isn't.

paradigmwind
Simply because some particular model only goes back to time t=0 is absolutely no reason to think that there was nothing before that.

Of course it is. Otherwise, you might as well be saying that there is no reason to think that planetary orbits around other stars will be essentially elliptical, because apparently you don't consider the predictions of our best theory of gravity to be reason enough.

paradigmwind
t=-1 may not make any sense in the framework of a particular theory but that doesn't mean that we have any more proof that there was no t=-1 than someone who asserts that there was and that it involved exploding orbs or whatever.

Yes, it does. GTR is a very well-tested, robust theory, something that cannot be said of the "exploding orb" hypothesis, which isn't even well-defined because no one has any clue as to what it even means.

paradigmwind
You are right anything like that would be on the wrong end of a singularity and we wouldn't be able to get at it. In fact thanks to the way we have built up our models we have convieniently made it so that the question doesn't even make sense to ask WITHIN THE FRAMEWORKS OF THOSE MODELS.

Are you accusing scientists of some sort of willful conspiracy to tailor GTR to reach the conclusion of the universe existing for a finite time in the past? Despite the fact historically, man scientists have been trying to do the opposite--build an eternal universe model (that is in fact the original purpose of the cosmological constant), because most of them had that preconception of the universe (cf. Einstein static universe)?

paradigmwind
That does not by any means mean that the question does not make sense. The question was not asked within the framework of gtr so we should not force the terms in the question to fit the definitions of that model.

Well, someone didn't bother to read the thread. Quoth myself [1]: "... Under standard big bang models, there is no "where" and no "when" prior to the big bang. If you have an alternative theory, you'll need to define what those concepts mean when they refer to events "before" the big bang. " Translation: "Your question is meaningless under the standard model; if you want another answer, give me another model."

paradigmwind
What you guys are saying is that the concept of before the big bang does not have a meaning within the framework of the standard model of cosmology but say it that way don't say it as though it were the unquestionable truth handed down from on high because it isn't and if you say it that way then your answer is no more meaninful or satisfying than "because god made it".

Either you haven't read the thread at all, in which case you have no business making such accusations, or you're simply lying. I have been explicit as to which framework I'm using to answer the question since my very first post in this thread [2], and reaffirmed it in places such as the one referenced above.

VorpalNeko
Captain


paradigmwind

PostPosted: Wed Jul 26, 2006 12:48 am


VorpalNeko
paradigmwind
What on earth kind of proof do you have to make a conjecture like that time isn't infinite in the past direction?

Because our best theory of gravity says that it isn't.

paradigmwind
Simply because some particular model only goes back to time t=0 is absolutely no reason to think that there was nothing before that.

Of course it is. Otherwise, you might as well be saying that there is no reason to think that planetary orbits around other stars will be essentially elliptical, because apparently you don't consider the predictions of our best theory of gravity to be reason enough.

paradigmwind
t=-1 may not make any sense in the framework of a particular theory but that doesn't mean that we have any more proof that there was no t=-1 than someone who asserts that there was and that it involved exploding orbs or whatever.

Yes, it does. GTR is a very well-tested, robust theory, something that cannot be said of the "exploding orb" hypothesis, which isn't even well-defined because no one has any clue as to what it even means.

paradigmwind
You are right anything like that would be on the wrong end of a singularity and we wouldn't be able to get at it. In fact thanks to the way we have built up our models we have convieniently made it so that the question doesn't even make sense to ask WITHIN THE FRAMEWORKS OF THOSE MODELS.

Are you accusing scientists of some sort of willful conspiracy to tailor GTR to reach the conclusion of the universe existing for a finite time in the past? Despite the fact historically, man scientists have been trying to do the opposite--build an eternal universe model (that is in fact the original purpose of the cosmological constant), because most of them had that preconception of the universe (cf. Einstein static universe)?

paradigmwind
That does not by any means mean that the question does not make sense. The question was not asked within the framework of gtr so we should not force the terms in the question to fit the definitions of that model.

Well, someone didn't bother to read the thread. Quoth myself [1]: "... Under standard big bang models, there is no "where" and no "when" prior to the big bang. If you have an alternative theory, you'll need to define what those concepts mean when they refer to events "before" the big bang. " Translation: "Your question is meaningless under the standard model; if you want another answer, give me another model."

paradigmwind
What you guys are saying is that the concept of before the big bang does not have a meaning within the framework of the standard model of cosmology but say it that way don't say it as though it were the unquestionable truth handed down from on high because it isn't and if you say it that way then your answer is no more meaninful or satisfying than "because god made it".

Either you haven't read the thread at all, in which case you have no business making such accusations, or you're simply lying. I have been explicit as to which framework I'm using to answer the question since my very first post in this thread [2], and reaffirmed it in places such as the one referenced above.


You are totally right I didn't read the thread at all. In fact I didn't even read what you just said. I am operating totally on psychic impressions. wink Though seriously what you seem to think comes over as clear actually comes over as nothing more than a foot note. When you say I didn't read the thread at all you seem to mean I didn't pay meticulous attention to everything you in particular said in the thread. Which is warranted since I started the rant off with a jab at your assertion that time is not infinite in the past direction but that assertion was given without any reference to a theory and had (at least to me) very much the feel of an assertion handed down from on high something to the effect of "gah isn't it obvious!" But whether or not you were putting your particular argument in the framework of gtr or not isn't really what was making me mad. (and mad let us grant him, that he's mad tis true, tis a pity and pity it... oh you get the idea) What makes me mad is that people get too attached to theories and take them places they don't fit and act as though they still have authority. We cannot take gtr's prediction of an initial time of t=0 very seriously since our own model of the universe tells us that gtr breaks down before it hits the singularity at t=0 anyway! To that effect if we are to be faithful to the models that we have built then we must admit that we do not know what happened at t=0 nor do we have the right to claim (with certainty anyway) that such a statement as t=-1 does not make any sense in the physical world. Since the question was (or so I would assume) about the real world and not about gtr then we should look at it in the way it was intended. You told us that in gtr the question doesn't make sense but once said it needn't be pounded home too hard. People might be aware that the question does not make sense in the modern model of cosmology and not be satisfied by that. Unable to fit nicely into a modern model the question does not automatically become unanswerable because it does not come with nice solid definitions. The question still holds a basic intuitive force and that is I think all that a question needs in order to be understood. In fact I would say that is all a question really needs definitions come after understanding. The question of the origin of the universe deserves better treatment than a simple "the question does not make sense" Just because the answer lies on the other end of a singularity doesn't mean it isn't there. (though I agree it definitely may not be) but sometimes interesting things lie on the other side of infinities. Just take the Riemann zeta function. I think that any model of the universe in which the universe doesn't have to exist is probably incomplete. Its einsteins question of whether or not god had any choice in the creation of the universe. While he may perhaps have been talking about the physical laws I think it is easily extended to the question of whether or not the existence of the universe is a foregone conclusion once one has all the rules to the game so to speak.
PostPosted: Fri Jul 28, 2006 5:59 pm


Would it be all that troubling for you to use paragraphs at least once in a while?
paradigmwind
You are totally right I didn't read the thread at all. In fact I didn't even read what you just said. I am operating totally on psychic impressions.

It's possible, but it's more likely that you're operating totally on knee-jerk responses.

paradigmwind
When you say I didn't read the thread at all you seem to mean I didn't pay meticulous attention to everything you in particular said in the thread. Which is warranted since I started the rant off with a jab at your assertion that time is not infinite in the past direction but that assertion was given without any reference to a theory ...

(Emphasis mine.) This is a falsehood. I've stated that this is a result of the general theory of relativity since my very first post in this thread. This is the second time you simply ingore this fact, despite being corrected above. Unless somehow you do not consider GTR a theory.

paradigmwind
.. and had (at least to me) very much the feel of an assertion handed down from on high something to the effect of "gah isn't it obvious!"

That this is a consequence of GTR should be obvious to anyone with even a rudimentary familiarity of logic and knowledge of the fact that GTR treats the universe as a spacetime, rather than a space evolving in time. (1) In GTR, the universe is a spacetime. (2) Therefore, time is part of the universe, according to GTR. (3) Therefore, "before the universe" implies "before time". (4) "Time before time" is nonsensical. See--it being a consequence of GTR is a matter of basic logic. Now, GTR itself is far from basic and neither are the reasons for adopting it, but that's outside this particular issue.

paradigmwind
But whether or not you were putting your particular argument in the framework of gtr or not isn't really what was making me mad. What makes me mad is that people get too attached to theories and take them places they don't fit and act as though they still have authority.

Lacking a better theory, it does have authority. At best, your criticism is one of wording, as below:

paradigmwind
We cannot take gtr's prediction of an initial time of t=0 very seriously since our own model of the universe tells us that gtr breaks down before it hits the singularity at t=0 anyway!

Not quite--QM is what breaks down before, but in any case even fully adopting your interpretation, what does it mean? Why, it means that time before t=0 is physically meaningless, since we have no working theory to model it (in fact, according to QM, time before t=Planck time is physically meaningless). If all your criticism amounts to is the fact that one should say "physically meaningless" rather "does not exist," pardon me if I'm not terribly impressed with it.

paradigmwind
To that effect if we are to be faithful to the models that we have built then we must admit that we do not know what happened at t=0 nor do we have the right to claim (with certainty anyway) that such a statement as t=-1 does not make any sense in the physical world.

Yes, we do have that right, but no one was ascribing any sort of absolute certainty to it. You seem to willfully ignore the fact that those statements were qualified in reference to particular theories, which are by nature subject to revision should new evidence emerge.

paradigmwind
Since the question was (or so I would assume) about the real world and not about gtr then we should look at it in the way it was intended.

That distinction is patently absurd. One cannot interpret the real world without a theory, and GTR happens to be the default here--as I said in one of my posts in the previous page (to someone else), if you want me to interpret things with a different theory, provide it. Tell me, please, how does one answer physical questions about the real world with which one has no direct experience with, other than by employing some theory or another? Without a theory, one can't even say that the planetary orbits were elliptical a millenium ago, much less about the state of the universe billions of years ago.

paradigmwind
You told us that in gtr the question doesn't make sense but once said it needn't be pounded home too hard. People might be aware that the question does not make sense in the modern model of cosmology and not be satisfied by that. Unable to fit nicely into a modern model the question does not automatically become unanswerable because it does not come with nice solid definitions. ...

Which is exactly why I asked to be provided with a different theory if a different answer is sought. How many times do I need to repeat myself before you finally comprehend that (1) one needs some working theory to answer the question meaningfully at all, otherwise it's just pseudophilosophical nonsense, that (2) I've been speficying the theory with which I was answering the question, and that (3) that if one finds the answer unsatisfactory, one should use an alternative theory.

paradigmwind
Just because the answer lies on the other end of a singularity doesn't mean it isn't there.

And yet it does mean that no answer is currently known. What do you want--concrete scientific answers or pseudophilosophical guesswork?

paradigmwind
... but sometimes interesting things lie on the other side of infinities. Just take the Riemann zeta function.

False analogy, since there is a well-defined process by which to analytically continue the Riemann zeta function to the rest of the complex plane. There is no such process across the big bang singularity.

paradigmwind
I think that any model of the universe in which the universe doesn't have to exist is probably incomplete.

Is this something that's supposed to apply to the claim that there is no t<0? In that case, in the immortal words of Doc Brown, you're not thinking fourth-dimensionally--in GTR, the universe is a spacetime that simply exists. It does not "come to be" or "cease to exist" or any such thing. It's simply a manifold that happens to have certain properties.

paradigmwind
Its einsteins question of whether or not god had any choice in the creation of the universe. While he may perhaps have been talking about the physical laws I think it is easily extended to the question of whether or not the existence of the universe is a foregone conclusion once one has all the rules to the game so to speak.

A very strange proposal indeed, since whatever the "rules of the game" are, they have to act on something, and hence would be part of the universe. It might be a universe of a vastly different state than found today, but nevertheless it would be the same universe.

VorpalNeko
Captain


paradigmwind

PostPosted: Mon Jul 31, 2006 1:33 am


VorpalNeko
Would it be all that troubling for you to use paragraphs at least once in a while?


yes, I have a medical condition using quotes causes me intense physical pain... No actually I think that using quotes is overall antiproductive. While it increases the ability to see what statements are being applied to I think it causes a lot of duplication of argument and keeps people from considering the argument of a post as a whole. But with that objection on record I will respond with quotes.


paradigmwind
.. and had (at least to me) very much the feel of an assertion handed down from on high something to the effect of "gah isn't it obvious!"

VorpalNeko

That this is a consequence of GTR should be obvious to anyone with even a rudimentary familiarity of logic and knowledge of the fact that GTR treats the universe as a spacetime, rather than a space evolving in time. (1) In GTR, the universe is a spacetime. (2) Therefore, time is part of the universe, according to GTR. (3) Therefore, "before the universe" implies "before time". (4) "Time before time" is nonsensical. See--it being a consequence of GTR is a matter of basic logic. Now, GTR itself is far from basic and neither are the reasons for adopting it, but that's outside this particular issue.


Well while I agree with you that time before time is at best paradoxical We are not talking about time before time but rather wether or not time existed before the big bang. Since gtr permits closed timelike curves it is not even clear that gtr provides us with a very logical definition of "before" either. As far as whether or not gtr permits time to exist before the big bang is a far from obvious question to me since we could easily append a de-sitter curve just in front of the big bang and we have a solution in which we get two universes parting from the same big bang. Now of course calling them two separate universes is perhaps not in line with your terminology since by your argument (2) it would be part of this same universe. Regardless however it would provide a solution of gtr which involved time before the big bang.

paradigmwind
We cannot take gtr's prediction of an initial time of t=0 very seriously since our own model of the universe tells us that gtr breaks down before it hits the singularity at t=0 anyway!

VorpalNeko

...even fully adopting your interpretation, what does it mean? Why, it means that time before t=0 is physically meaningless, since we have no working theory to model it (in fact, according to QM, time before t=Planck time is physically meaningless)

yes precisely what I was trying to point out myself. my argument was meant to show that the idea of time became meaningless inside our best theories of today before t=0. If we let t=0 be a label for the first moment of time and also admit that our physical theories tell us that in fact asking the question of what was before plank time is nonsensical. That was the whole point. If saying that asking the question of what came before t=0 is nonsensical simply because we don't have a theory that describes it very well then t=plank time or before should really be where we draw the line which I take as a sign that perhaps t=0 isn't as absolute of a boundary as we might have thought either.


paradigmwind
Since the question was (or so I would assume) about the real world and not about gtr then we should look at it in the way it was intended.

VorpalNeko

That distinction is patently absurd. One cannot interpret the real world without a theory, and GTR happens to be the default here--as I said in one of my posts in the previous page (to someone else), if you want me to interpret things with a different theory, provide it. Tell me, please, how does one answer physical questions about the real world with which one has no direct experience with, other than by employing some theory or another? Without a theory, one can't even say that the planetary orbits were elliptical a millenium ago, much less about the state of the universe billions of years ago.


The distinction between theory and the real world is hardly "patently absurd" it may seem odd to you but theories are occaisionally found not to correspond to the real world. So we come back again to the question of whether or not questions about the real world have meaning outside of some theory. As I think we have both made abundantly clear my answer to this is yes and your answer to it is no. So we can stop head butting about it.... Unless of course you would like to continue in which case I'm up for it, it is an interesting enough topic.

paradigmwind
Just because the answer lies on the other end of a singularity doesn't mean it isn't there.
VorpalNeko

And yet it does mean that no answer is currently known. What do you want--concrete scientific answers or pseudophilosophical guesswork?

To be honest I view both of those things to be on just about equal footing. "concrete scientific answers" are really nothing more than "pseudophilosophical guesswork" with a bit of testing backing them. Where there are "concrete" answers I like to hear them but where there are not I usually enjoy hearing the guesswork too.

paradigmwind
... but sometimes interesting things lie on the other side of infinities. Just take the Riemann zeta function.
VorpalNeko

False analogy, since there is a well-defined process by which to analytically continue the Riemann zeta function to the rest of the complex plane. There is no such process across the big bang singularity.

Actually I think it is a perfectly valid analogy since Riemann invented the method of extension himself. I am not saying that there must be such an extension in the case of gtr but I am saying that there might be one waiting to be discovered. While admittedly even if such an extension were to be discovered it would most likely not have any physical significance it would certainly be the kind of result I would love to hear about. Maybe it would even inspire me to do some "pseudophilosophical guesswork" of my own, I do tend to enjoy that kind of thing.

paradigmwind
I think that any model of the universe in which the universe doesn't have to exist is probably incomplete.
VorpalNeko

Is this something that's supposed to apply to the claim that there is no t<0? In that case, in the immortal words of Doc Brown, you're not thinking fourth-dimensionally--in GTR, the universe is a spacetime that simply exists. It does not "come to be" or "cease to exist" or any such thing. It's simply a manifold that happens to have certain properties.


you mistake what I was saying entirely I wasn't talking about the universe coming into being at any particular time. Rather I was attempting to address the fundamental psychological question that drives the question of what came before the big bang. That question is rooted in the fact that humans like things to be logically necessary. The question of what happened to make the universe exist is in essence a question of the logical necessity of the universe.
paradigmwind
Its einsteins question of whether or not god had any choice in the creation of the universe.... the question of whether or not the existence of the universe is a foregone conclusion once one has all the rules to the game so to speak.
VorpalNeko

A very strange proposal indeed, since whatever the "rules of the game" are, they have to act on something, and hence would be part of the universe. It might be a universe of a vastly different state than found today, but nevertheless it would be the same universe.

By the rules of the game I mean the physical principles by which the "game" of the universe is played. If we had all the rules to the game or rather if we had all the correct physical laws by which the universe operates then I think we would find that at least on some level the universe exists as a matter of logical necessity. Or to adapt the question of einsteins from before I think that god had no choice in the creation of the universe.
PostPosted: Tue Aug 08, 2006 11:59 am


Quote:
To be honest I view both of those things to be on just about equal footing. "concrete scientific answers" are really nothing more than "pseudophilosophical guesswork" with a bit of testing backing them.

That is a very lazy opinion. Science is far more than that. There is a big difference between a rigorous mathematical framework with decades of solid attempts to disprove it coming out in its favour and "pseudo philosophical guesswork".

Quote:
The distinction between theory and the real world is hardly "patently absurd" it may seem odd to you but theories are occaisionally found not to correspond to the real world. So we come back again to the question of whether or not questions about the real world have meaning outside of some theory. As I think we have both made abundantly clear my answer to this is yes and your answer to it is no. So we can stop head butting about it.... Unless of course you would like to continue in which case I'm up for it, it is an interesting enough topic.

VorpalNeko was not saying "Theories are the real world", he is saying that outside them you are guessing.
GR has massive support and a well defined mathematical foundations. The alternatives do not. If you want to think about the Early Universe in a manner that is likely to correspond to reality, you should go with GR.

The "I'm asking a question about the real world, not GR" line doesn't work.

Friendship coordinator


paradigmwind

PostPosted: Thu Aug 10, 2006 10:34 pm


Friendship coordinator

That is a very lazy opinion. Science is far more than that. There is a big difference between a rigorous mathematical framework with decades of solid attempts to disprove it coming out in its favour and "pseudo philosophical guesswork".

I tend to think that if it is testable then it is science. The mathematical nature of something is hardly necessary for something to be a science. As soon as pseudophilosophical guesswork gives us testable predictions we can include it in the scientific realm. That is not to say that any crank theory is on the same footing as gtr but just because something isn't the peak of scientific rigor does not mean it is not science. btw why is it a lazy opinion?
Friendship coordinator

VorpalNeko was not saying "Theories are the real world", he is saying that outside them you are guessing.
GR has massive support and a well defined mathematical foundations. The alternatives do not. If you want to think about the Early Universe in a manner that is likely to correspond to reality, you should go with GR.

The "I'm asking a question about the real world, not GR" line doesn't work.


The difference between saying that there is no difference between theory and the real world and saying that in order to ask a question you must frame it in the perspective of a theory are admittedly different... but by how much? gtr does have a vast amount of back up but what gtr says about the early universe and what the early universe really was are two different things. gtr alone doesn't solve homogeneity or the horizon problem so it is hardly the only thing we need to consider when we look at the early universe. The "I'm asking a question about the real world, not GR" should work. That line is intended to invite speculation. Its an invitation to say crazy things rather than the stock answers that have been tried and tested. I think it is important to realize that even questions which are "patently absurd" or that lack the stable footing of a perfectly logical background can still provide insight, that is the beauty of a koan.
PostPosted: Fri Aug 25, 2006 10:31 am


paradigmwind
I tend to think that if it is testable then it is science. The mathematical nature of something is hardly necessary for something to be a science. As soon as pseudophilosophical guesswork gives us testable predictions we can include it in the scientific realm.

As soon as it gives testable predictions, it is a theory. Not necessarily a good or even working theory, but a theory nonetheless.

All that was said was that the evalutation was done by this 'peak of scientific rigor' and that if someone wanted an alternative evaluation, and alternative theory should be provided. What's your problem? Do you enjoy twisting my words to something completely different than what was said? Or do you consider it my duty to come up with a completely new working theory just to answer the original question?

paradigmwind
That is not to say that any crank theory is on the same footing as gtr but just because something isn't the peak of scientific rigor does not mean it is not science.

It is according to you:
You
What on earth kind of proof do you have to make a conjecture like that time isn't infinite in the past direction? Simply because some particular model only goes back to time t=0 is absolutely no reason to think that there was nothing before that.

Apparently, you think the fact that some predictions are made by the 'peak of scientific rigor' does not provide any reason to believe those predictions. In other words, you treat all of them on the same footing.

paradigmwind
Its an invitation to say crazy things rather than the stock answers that have been tried and tested. I think it is important to realize that even questions which are "patently absurd" or that lack the stable footing of a perfectly logical background can still provide insight, that is the beauty of a koan.

Congratulations. According to your philosophy, we can't answer the question at all, even in principle, because however good our theory performs, it is no reason to believe it. We're just stuck making up "crazy things" and we can't even compare their relative validity.

VorpalNeko
Captain


paradigmwind

PostPosted: Mon Aug 28, 2006 2:08 pm


VorpalNeko

As soon as it gives testable predictions, it is a theory. Not necessarily a good or even working theory, but a theory nonetheless.

yes, I suppose I should have included the condition that the theory be open to revision upon falsification. But isn't science ultimately just the synthesis of theories combined with the willingness to be wrong?
VorpalNeko

All that was said was that the evalutation was done by this 'peak of scientific rigor' and that if someone wanted an alternative evaluation, and alternative theory should be provided. What's your problem? Do you enjoy twisting my words to something completely different than what was said? Or do you consider it my duty to come up with a completely new working theory just to answer the original question?

I don't get my kicks out of warping your words. I understand where you are coming from. (at least I think I understand, but then again considering your probable opinion of me by this time in the thread you would almost certainly disagree) The answer that the question doesn't make sense is actually a damn good answer. But I also think it is a damn boring answer. It certainly isn't your duty to come up with a completely new working theory or even mention if there are alternative current working theories. But then duty doesn't even enter into it, I haven't been posting to this thread because I think its my duty to do anything. I post to this thread becasue I think its interesting. why are you posting?

VorpalNeko

paradigmwind
That is not to say that any crank theory is on the same footing as gtr but just because something isn't the peak of scientific rigor does not mean it is not science.

It is according to you:

not to be dense or anything here but... what is according to me? that it is science or that it is on the same footing?
VorpalNeko

You
What on earth kind of proof do you have to make a conjecture like that time isn't infinite in the past direction? Simply because some particular model only goes back to time t=0 is absolutely no reason to think that there was nothing before that.

Apparently, you think the fact that some predictions are made by the 'peak of scientific rigor' does not provide any reason to believe those predictions. In other words, you treat all of them on the same footing.

Yes and no. My point in saying that it is no reason to think that there is nothing before t=0 was intended as a remark to say that relativity doesn't say anything about what came before the big bang. And just as you said it is because the question doesn't make sense in relativity but that is just exactly my point. The theory says nothing about it not that there is nothing to be said about it. As for the idea that all theories are on the same footing yes they are, or rather they should be. Whether or not a theory has empirical backing changes my readyness to believe it. However every theory in absence of empirical backing should have the same footing. yes. Now as far as relativity goes it does have a great deal of empirical backing and its predictions are very valuable when it does in fact give predictions. But just as you said earlier the question of what came "before" the big bang doesn't make sense within the framework of relativity.

VorpalNeko

Congratulations. According to your philosophy, we can't answer the question at all, even in principle, because however good our theory performs, it is no reason to believe it. We're just stuck making up "crazy things" and we can't even compare their relative validity.


I am not absolutely sure where you got the idea that I think there is no reason to believe anything, but it isn't true. I do think that we cannot answer the question no matter how well our theory performs just as you said. But whether or not we should believe a particular answer or not is different than having an answer to a question in an absolute sense. We cannot answer the question absolutely, we cannot answer any question absolutely. However I have no problem with someone believing a particular answer so long as they are willing to change that belief when sufficient evidence is produced. Just because relativity behaves well under the conditions where we have observed it does not mean that it will continue to produce good predictions under conditions where we have not observed it. The rayleigh-jeans law appears to predict the right black body spectrum for long wavelengths but that doesn't stop it from giving being totally wrong.

I think that relativity is incomplete, not wrong necessarily but incomplete in the way that the picture of light without the concept of quantization was incomplete. I am betting that at some point close enough to the big bang some fact we are unaware of becomes very important and either provides an impetus for the big bang without a continuing past or provides a past from which the big bang stemmed. Perhaps I am wrong to think that a theory of the big bang is incomplete without showing its necessity but I will continue to think that until I have a good enough reason not to.
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