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lili of the lamplight

PostPosted: Mon Jul 30, 2007 11:24 pm


How do we determine whether two languages are really two languages versus two dialects of the same tongue? I keep hearing and reading about seemingly arbitrary lines to determine, but in nearly every case, there are countless exceptions.

Mutual intelligibility seems like a reasonable guideline, but clearly isn't the one being applied. Sicillian Italian is a fantastic example; speakers of it often find it nearly impossible to communicate with speakers of mainstream Italian. One speaker of Sicillian said he has an easier time understanding Mexican Spanish than mainstream Italian. There are many dialects of Chinese which aren't mutually intelligible, yet they are technically considered to be the same language.

On the flip side, some separate languages are largely mutually intelligible. Dutch and German spring to mind, along with Croatian and Serbian or Farsi and Arabic.

So, where do you draw the line? How should we determine where one language ends and the next begins?
PostPosted: Wed Aug 29, 2007 1:35 pm


They say that a language is a dialect with an army and a navy.

It does depend on linguistic reasons (nobody would ever be able to pass Basque off as a dialect of Spanish), but also on political and cultural reasons; most linguists agree that it's better to think of Catalan, Occitan and Valencian to all be the same language, but the speakers insist they're different, even though they're close to 100% mutually intelligible and very similar overall. The differences between those three are no more pronounced than the differences between American English and, say, Australian English.

Oh, and Farsi and Arabic aren't mutually intelligible at all. Hell, they're not even from the same language family; Farsi is Indo-European and Arabic is Semitic. TOTALLY different.

And honestly, Arabic speakers have to rely on a standard version of the language (Classical Arabic) to even understand each other, because the Arabic language is so heavily dialected.

Eccentric Iconoclast
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Vajra B. Hairava

PostPosted: Wed Aug 29, 2007 2:48 pm


I'd say that if two languages have a lot of mutual intelligibility (like 95%), and are related somehow, they can be considered dialects of each other. If they both from a common source, but unintelligible to each other, I'd say no, by then they have split into separate languages, though they make have common roots.

I don't give any credit for splitting languages into dialects for political reasonsor country divisions, such as Malay/Indonesian or Hinid/Urdu). Thats basically the same as calling american and british english different languages.

But in the end they're all languages anyway, so its not really worth worrying about in my opinion. They're just names, they don't actually change anything.
PostPosted: Sun Sep 02, 2007 11:53 pm


I'd like to add towards the Chinese dialect/language debate, that they all use the same standard writing system. I think the whole point of that in the first place was to bring the dialects together with the Han ethnicity as a whole.

Lawrencew
Crew


Xeigrich

PostPosted: Wed Sep 05, 2007 11:11 pm


On the subject of the Chinese written language, yes, all "dialects" of Chinese use the same written language, but... English, Spanish, French, German, etc. all use the same writing system (with an extra letter or two now and then), but are indeed very different languages and are NOT mutually intelligible.

I think what my Chinese language instructor had said was that long, long ago, the Chinese language was much like English, with just a few different dialects for different areas, but as new dynasties came around, the dialects evolved and became more and more different. Eventually, the only thing they still had in common was tones and the writing system. To me, that's the sign of completely different languages sharing a common writing system. There are indeed dialects within the different Chinese languages, but these dialects are mutually intelligible with one another within their parent language.

I would like to see a decline in people calling Mandarin, Cantonese, etc. or any other language from China simply "Chinese." The differences are so great that a vague name like that doesn't do it justice. We don't think of learning "Romance" or "European" when we think of Europe; we think of Spanish, French, Portuguese, etc. I think the same concept should apply to Chinese... It should refer only to a language group, and more people need to be aware that "Chinese" isn't just one huge language you can learn and use with anyone from China. This is constantly becoming more and more of an issue as China continues to grow in power and prominence.

Anyway, to truly determine whether a particular speech/writing is a dialect or a whole new language, I think there should be some sort of tracing back to where the language originated, but still keeping some consideration of mutual intelligibility. I say that when a language reaches a certain, currently unspecified, point at which it is obviously deviated completely from it's original source, it should be considered a new language and NOT a dialect.

I also think we need another term to differentiate closely related dialects, such as variants of American English (southern, New Yorker, New Englander) as compared to British English or Australian English. Yes, these all may be considered dialects, but in rather different manners. Maybe a system like calling American/British/Australian "primary dialects" and calling "souther/New Yorker" and "cockney" as "secondary dialects" -- meaning they are dialects of dialects... You get the idea right?
PostPosted: Sat Sep 08, 2007 7:35 pm


I still say that they are just names. and they don't actually matter. If you call a cat a dog, its still a cat, nothings changed.

By the way, it seems to me that most people, when reffering to "Chinese" are reffering to Mandarin, because usually if its not that, they show it my calling it "Cantonese Chinese" or "Wu Chinese" or something.

And also, the Chinese languages didn't keep the tones in common. They all still have tone, but each one took their individual tone systems and went crazy.

Vajra B. Hairava


Xeigrich

PostPosted: Wed Sep 12, 2007 2:59 pm


Vajra B. Hairava
I still say that they are just names. and they don't actually matter. If you call a cat a dog, its still a cat, nothings changed.

By the way, it seems to me that most people, when reffering to "Chinese" are reffering to Mandarin, because usually if its not that, they show it my calling it "Cantonese Chinese" or "Wu Chinese" or something.

And also, the Chinese languages didn't keep the tones in common. They all still have tone, but each one took their individual tone systems and went crazy.


"A cat by any other name would be as stubborn and stuck-up as ever."

Actually, a more appropriate analogy would be referring to cats and lions as "felines" and dogs as "canines." Then you look at a fox or something and wonder, is it more like a feline or a canine? It's still a fox, whether it's a feline or canine or even something else, but it might help you understand what a fox is like if you know it's one or the other.

And tones... Jeez, Cantonese has like 9 tones I believe. I can grasp Mandarin's 4 tones plus Neutral... I can't even imagine how you could have more than that and still be intelligible.
PostPosted: Fri Sep 14, 2007 2:15 pm


Quote:
On the subject of the Chinese written language, yes, all "dialects" of Chinese use the same written language, but... English, Spanish, French, German, etc. all use the same writing system (with an extra letter or two now and then), but are indeed very different languages and are NOT mutually intelligible.


While I understand that the actual spoken varieties of Chinese are as different as, maybe, Spanish and French, I was talking about the written language.

I am just saying that one thing that holds all of these dialects together as one group or language, is that they still use the same standard writing system. I don't think it can be compared to English, Spanish and French.

When the same phrase is written as

I am called...
Me llamo...
Je m'appelle

It's quite different when everyone writing Chinese would write

我叫...

They use not only the same writing system, but share exactly the same written language.

Quote:
And tones... Jeez, Cantonese has like 9 tones I believe. I can grasp Mandarin's 4 tones plus Neutral... I can't even imagine how you could have more than that and still be intelligible.


And I believe that Cantonese really only has 6 tones - I'm still not really sure why there is that debate... Which means that there is only one more tone in Cantonese than Mandarin.

Lawrencew
Crew


Vajra B. Hairava

PostPosted: Fri Sep 14, 2007 11:13 pm


Its something to do with "tone contours" or something like that.

But, Hmong has 8 tones! surprised Straight up, 8 tones. Gha, do not want.
PostPosted: Sat Sep 15, 2007 1:08 pm


Vajra B. Hairava
Its something to do with "tone contours" or something like that.

But, Hmong has 8 tones! surprised Straight up, 8 tones. Gha, do not want.

It's got one of the best orthographies of the East Asian languages. Behold, it actually works! Without being too complicated! Wow!

I've always liked the sound of it compared to, like, Chinese. It sounds less harsh. ninja

Eccentric Iconoclast
Vice Captain


Vajra B. Hairava

PostPosted: Fri Sep 21, 2007 12:28 am


Yah, do want. A roommate of mine is Hmong, and I like to be sneaky and peek into his Hmong textbooks. Its weird.

It depends what you consider "east". Indonesian is south east, which is still east, and I'd prefer the indonesian orthography. Malay messes a few points up. but Indonesian has gotta be 99% phonetic. I lurve phoneticosity.

Though I don't know much abotu the Hmong orthography. From the amount of phonemes in that language, the amound of letters (digraphs taken into account) doesn't look to be enough to completely support the Hmong sound system.

So, To omniglot I go! surprised
PostPosted: Thu Jan 17, 2008 7:57 pm


Xeigrich
I also think we need another term to differentiate closely related dialects, such as variants of American English (southern, New Yorker, New Englander) as compared to British English or Australian English. Yes, these all may be considered dialects, but in rather different manners. Maybe a system like calling American/British/Australian "primary dialects" and calling "souther/New Yorker" and "cockney" as "secondary dialects" -- meaning they are dialects of dialects... You get the idea right?


That's a great idea, but were would you draw line at splitting up dialects into sub-categories? Someone could arguably say that a secondary dialect should be split up even more. Sure Southern American is a secondary dialect but people from in Eastern North Carolina sound different from someone from Atlanta or West Virginia, so do they all get tertiary dialects?

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MiasmaMoon

PostPosted: Fri Jul 04, 2008 8:04 pm


Xeigrich
I think what my Chinese language instructor had said was that long, long ago, the Chinese language was much like English, with just a few different dialects for different areas, but as new dynasties came around, the dialects evolved and became more and more different. Eventually, the only thing they still had in common was tones and the writing system. To me, that's the sign of completely different languages sharing a common writing system. There are indeed dialects within the different Chinese languages, but these dialects are mutually intelligible with one another within their parent language.


What threw me off in that paragraph was that I'm pretty sure that the writing system was created after the existence of a difference in the "dialects." In the past, the "Chinese" people were separated due to differences such as "language" and area (no centralized government, you see). The reason why the common writing system was created was so that China could be unified into an empire (not by spoken language, but by written). This is what I learned in history, anyways. confused

(I used quotation marks because I wasn't sure what word should belong there.)
PostPosted: Fri Aug 22, 2008 12:56 pm


Before this discussion continues, let me say:
"A dialect is distinguished by its vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation (phonology, including prosody). Where a distinction can be made only in terms of pronunciation, the term accent is appropriate, not dialect (although in common usage, "dialect" and "accent" are usually synonymous)."
from: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dialect

A dialect is a language that, in comparison to the Modern-Standard version of its language of origin, is considered gramatically incorrect. What was said about "dialects of english" (British, Australian, New Yorker, New Englander) by Xiegrich is not applicable because British, Australian, and American English are not dialects, they are accents. Furthermore, New Englander, New Yorker, etc, are not dialects either, they are accents. of course, i am generalizing, because there are many people that also use grammatically incorrect speech. although, any slang/dialect that is used is standard throughout the US, meaning that if you took someone from the streets of New Haven, CT, and put them in same room as someone from the streets of South-Central Los Angeles (a.k.a. Compton) their slang would be mutually intelligible; whereas if you put someone from Naples and someone from Calabria in the same room, one wouldnt have a clue of what the other is saying however, back to accents, here in New England, we say orange (or-anj), but in New York, they say (awr-anj, "aw" is in "claw").

sono italiano


Prince Rilian

PostPosted: Wed Mar 11, 2009 2:03 pm


My mom and I got into a bit of an argument of dialect versus register. Like, is someone who speaks ebonics with his friends but standard english at work using two different dialects or two different registers? Was that girl from the movie Sweet Home Alabama using two different dialects or two different registers?
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