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 Posted: Tue Jan 09, 2007 8:30 pm
Little background information, i am buddhist, my girlfriend is christian, we both accept eachother for our varied religious beleifs. My girlfriend takes her vow of abstinence until marrige very seriously. I have always been told, and it is my beleif, that where we are told to refrain from "sensual misconduct", we are asked to refrain from any sexual contact that could cause suffering in others, no more and no less. Due to this definition, this does not extend entirley to sex out of marrige.
Onto my question.
A thought came to mind earlier today.
Assuming my aforementioned definition of sensual misconduct, assuming my girlfriend, in the heat of passion, asked to have sex with me, i would still be required to deny her that, as that sexual act could later cause her emotional suffering.
Is this accurate?
I suprised myself with my own readiness to accept this fact, where as sex normally drives me crazy in a relationship.
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Posted: Wed Jan 10, 2007 10:24 am
I think your conclusion is accurate, as you're being mindful of the way things would most likely play themselves out if such a situation were to arise. Compassionate and wise all at the same time. Hyuu~
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Posted: Wed Jan 10, 2007 10:38 am
looks like you really thought it out thoroughly..
but i would like to add that "sensual misconduct" doesn't just involve sexual, it actually means overindulgence in anything pleasurable will in turn cause suffering.
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Posted: Wed Jan 10, 2007 5:12 pm
Hitokiri_Tsering looks like you really thought it out thoroughly.. but i would like to add that "sensual misconduct" doesn't just involve sexual, it actually means overindulgence in anything pleasurable will in turn cause suffering. thank you for the insight, as i most likley would have overlooked this
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