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Posted: Mon Feb 20, 2006 7:06 am
This is quite of an interesting topic, usually is not discussed among Christians. I see quite alot of evidence from scripture that God is Omnipresent and the Jewish Orthodox perspective agrees. Psalm 8 is quite clear on the subject and there is no contradiction what so ever.
As for 2 Thessalonians 1:9, let me quote Albert Barnes because he explains well what the context is saying. "From the presence of the Lord - That is, a part of their punishment will consist in being banished from the immediate presence of the Lord. There is a sense in which God is everywhere present, and in that sense he will be in the world where the wicked will dwell, to punish them. But the phrase is also used to denote his more immediate presence; the place where are the symbols of his majesty and glory; the home of the holy and the blessed. It is in that sense that the word is used here, and the idea is, that it will be one of the circumstances contributing to the deeper woe of the place of punishment, that those who dwell there will be banished from that holy abode, and will never be permitted to enter there."
Indeed.
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Posted: Mon Feb 20, 2006 11:36 pm
Very confusing, isn't it?...considering God is Omnipresent.
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Posted: Tue Feb 21, 2006 7:13 pm
William C. Wonka Very confusing, isn't it?...considering God is Omnipresent. The english is what makes most of it confusing. Just take the New Testament alone. There are some world added that were not in the original text plus the translators took three words and translate them into one word. One example is Hell. the original greek is Gehenna, Hades and Tartoo which have different meanings.
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