Elf Lord Chiewn
(?)Community Member
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- Posted: Thu, 24 Jan 2008 02:40:55 +0000
Lord Setar
kp is dcvi
Lord Setar
kp is dcvi
Lord Setar
That doesn't make the question as any less valid. The question is to attempt to establish if consent to the risk is irrevocable consent to the action, in question to statements that "the woman made her choice when she consented to sex!" It is very relevant and pertinent, especially when statements or implications such as that come into play.
Answer me this Setar: If she refrained from sex in that isolated incident where she did become pregnant: Would she be pregnant?
No. However, that still does not mean consenting to sex is irrevocably consenting to carrying any resulting pregnancy to term. All you've done is re-establish the already established consent to the risk of pregnancy.
Tell me Setar... are there lines that can be drawn? Is any one women truly ever in control when the Sperm enters inside her?
What control do we have over our biological processes? If you don't want to digest... you can't shut off digestion, you need to not eat. If you don't want to urinate, you can't reabsorb the liquids into your body, you need to not drink. If you want to sleep, you cannot nullify the caffiene in your body, you need to not drink the coffee...
You're trying to put so much free will over our own flesh, which largely, has a mind of its own.
By your logic, we should ban contraceptives.
I think calling the quoted post "logic" might be going a bit far.