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Posted: Sat Jan 21, 2006 12:25 am
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Posted: Sat Jan 21, 2006 1:38 am
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Cometh The Inquisitor you all bash these ideas and you fail to even look at what they say! Shame be upon you. Yeah, the Bible has a pretty bad women's rghts track (deuter. 22:28-29) This passage doesn't violate women rights. If you look closely, in Deu 22:25, man raping a woman is a result of death of the rapist. In Deu 22:28, the woman is yielding to it, and so is not expressive of a rape, as Deu 22:25 where a different word from this is there used; which signifies taking strong hold of her, and ravishing her by force; yet this, though owing to his first violent seizure of her, and so different from what was obtained by enticing words, professions of love, and promises of marriage, and the like, as in Exo 22:16 but not without her consent.
(Verse 11) his "shameful" parts, which through shame are hidden, and modesty forbids to express in proper terms; and such is the purity of the Hebrew language, that no obscene words are used in it; for which reason, among others, it is called the holy tongue. This immodest action was done partly out of affection to her husband, to oblige his antagonist to let go his hold of him; and partly out of malice and revenge to him, to spoil him, and make him unfit for generation, and therefore was to be severely punished, as follows.
(Verse 12) Which was to be done not by the man that strove with her husband, or by any bystander, but by the civil magistrate or his order. This severity was used to deter women from such an immodest as well as injurious action, who on such an occasion are very passionate and inconsiderate. Our Lord is thought to refer to this law, Mat 5:30; though the Jewish writers interpret this not of actual cutting off the hand, but of paying a valuable consideration, a price put upon it; so Jarchi; and Aben Ezra compares it with the law of retaliation, "eye for eye", Exo 21:24; which they commonly understand of paying a price for the both, &c. lost; and who adds, if she does not redeem her hand (i.e. by a price) it must be cut off.
Common objection is that Paul is only referring to wives because in verse 35, it uses 'ιδιους ανδρας' meaning 'their husband.' Also, its directed against a practice which seems to have prevailed in this church at Corinth, allowing women to preach and teach in it; and this being a disorderly practice, and what was not used in other churches. Perhaps it was a common Church tradition, during the early Church.
Cometh The Inquisitor Yeah, women are basically treated as lower then men. and yes, you still get the short end of the proverbial stick in the new testament. All I can say is, sucks to be you. A woman's status is because of God cursing Eve (and all women) in genesis. I disgree, I believe there is no lower class for women in the Church. However, in the marriage union, women need to follow their husbands orders but they must be reasonable.
Cometh The Inquisitor As for Son of Solomon. Dude, it's between a man and his wife. it's supposed to be rather sensual and 'x-rated'. The whole point of marriage is basically sex (1 Corinthians 1:1-9) The literal form of Song of Solomon would bring assumptions of sexual poetry. However, the terminology and grammar used in Song of Solomon, its quite symbolic and it could possibly refer to the Church.
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Posted: Sat Jan 21, 2006 9:11 pm
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Jedediah Smith Cometh The Inquisitor As for Son of Solomon. Dude, it's between a man and his wife. it's supposed to be rather sensual and 'x-rated'. The whole point of marriage is basically sex (1 Corinthians 1:1-9) The literal form of Song of Solomon would bring assumptions of sexual poetry. However, the terminology and grammar used in Song of Solomon, its quite symbolic and it could possibly refer to the Church. i
that is exactly what i was saying i said it on the front page as well as the top of this page and i will say it again jesus the lover and we are his beloved if the song of solomon was only ment to be a sexual poem then it would not have been put in the word of God which is completely God breathed and if the song of solomon wasnt God breathed then what is it doing in there
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Posted: Sun Jan 22, 2006 3:54 am
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Posted: Sun Jan 22, 2006 8:37 pm
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Jedediah Smith This passage doesn't violate women rights. If you look closely, in Deu 22:25, man raping a woman is a result of death of the rapist. In Deu 22:28, the woman is yielding to it, and so is not expressive of a rape, as Deu 22:25 where a different word from this is there used; which signifies taking strong hold of her, and ravishing her by force; yet this, though owing to his first violent seizure of her, and so different from what was obtained by enticing words, professions of love, and promises of marriage, and the like, as in Exo 22:16 but not without her consent. Then why, might I ask, is it still translated as rape, when a much more suitable word is available?
Quote: (Verse 11) his "shameful" parts, which through shame are hidden, and modesty forbids to express in proper terms; and such is the purity of the Hebrew language, that no obscene words are used in it; for which reason, among others, it is called the holy tongue. This immodest action was done partly out of affection to her husband, to oblige his antagonist to let go his hold of him; and partly out of malice and revenge to him, to spoil him, and make him unfit for generation, and therefore was to be severely punished, as follows. (Verse 12) Which was to be done not by the man that strove with her husband, or by any bystander, but by the civil magistrate or his order. This severity was used to deter women from such an immodest as well as injurious action, who on such an occasion are very passionate and inconsiderate. Our Lord is thought to refer to this law, Mat 5:30; though the Jewish writers interpret this not of actual cutting off the hand, but of paying a valuable consideration, a price put upon it; so Jarchi; and Aben Ezra compares it with the law of retaliation, "eye for eye", Exo 21:24; which they commonly understand of paying a price for the both, &c. lost; and who adds, if she does not redeem her hand (i.e. by a price) it must be cut off. I was refering more to the fact that no such law exists for men.
Quote: Common objection is that Paul is only referring to wives because in verse 35, it uses 'ιδιους ανδρας' meaning 'their husband.' Also, its directed against a practice which seems to have prevailed in this church at Corinth, allowing women to preach and teach in it; and this being a disorderly practice, and what was not used in other churches. Perhaps it was a common Church tradition, during the early Church. Irrelavent. If someone has something good to say then not being able to say it based off of their gender is most definatly sexist.
Quote: I disgree, I believe there is no lower class for women in the Church. However, in the marriage union, women need to follow their husbands orders but they must be reasonable. But when a woman is not married then she is considered her father's, thusly needing to submit to him in the place of here husband.
Quote: The literal form of Song of Solomon would bring assumptions of sexual poetry. However, the terminology and grammar used in Song of Solomon, its quite symbolic and it could possibly refer to the Church. see my answer in the previous post.
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Posted: Mon Jan 23, 2006 12:33 pm
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Cometh The Inquisitor Jedediah Smith This passage doesn't violate women rights. If you look closely, in Deu 22:25, man raping a woman is a result of death of the rapist. In Deu 22:28, the woman is yielding to it, and so is not expressive of a rape, as Deu 22:25 where a different word from this is there used; which signifies taking strong hold of her, and ravishing her by force; yet this, though owing to his first violent seizure of her, and so different from what was obtained by enticing words, professions of love, and promises of marriage, and the like, as in Exo 22:16 but not without her consent. Then why, might I ask, is it still translated as rape, when a much more suitable word is available? Yes, the Hebrew could backup the definition of rape. However, if the victim was raped, she could marry the rapist by her consent (v2 cool . If the woman chooses not, then the rapist would face death for his actions (v25).
Cometh The Inquisitor I was refering more to the fact that no such law exists for men. Oh, I see sweatdrop That I'm not sure of, I would have to search.
Cometh The Inquisitor Irrelavent. If someone has something good to say then not being able to say it based off of their gender is most definatly sexist. I agree, its sexist. However it doesn't have to be practiced today because Paul is speaking about the Corinthian culture. For example, women had to wear head coverings to demonstrate their submission to their husbands. In todays culture, men & women wear wedding rings to show submission to their spouse. In America, no one follows the Corinthian culture anymore.
Cometh The Inquisitor Quote: I disgree, I believe there is no lower class for women in the Church. However, in the marriage union, women need to follow their husbands orders but they must be reasonable. But when a woman is not married then she is considered her father's, thusly needing to submit to him in the place of here husband. However, the father has different authority position than the husband.
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Posted: Mon Jan 23, 2006 6:25 pm
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Posted: Tue Jan 24, 2006 10:21 am
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Posted: Wed Jan 25, 2006 9:56 pm
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Jedediah Smith Yes, the Hebrew could backup the definition of rape. However, if the victim was raped, she could marry the rapist by her consent (v2 cool . If the woman chooses not, then the rapist would face death for his actions (v25). ...
that's so annoying. Why can't God make things easier. xd
Quote: I agree, its sexist. However it doesn't have to be practiced today because Paul is speaking about the Corinthian culture. For example, women had to wear head coverings to demonstrate their submission to their husbands. In todays culture, men & women wear wedding rings to show submission to their spouse. In America, no one follows the Corinthian culture anymore. oi wey. Culture issues. Though what you say definately has merit.
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Posted: Sun Jan 29, 2006 5:28 pm
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Posted: Sun Jan 29, 2006 9:53 pm
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Posted: Sun Jan 29, 2006 11:58 pm
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Posted: Mon Jan 30, 2006 5:34 pm
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Posted: Thu Feb 09, 2006 6:32 pm
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Gambol As for the church and not letting women to speak: From what I know, the early church had a practice that males would sit on one side of the room while women would sit on the other. Since men were only allowed to formally speak in church, they would ask questions in an orderly fashion to the preacher/whoever. But, whenever women had questions to ask about certain Scripture, they'd holler it across the room in the middle of service to their husbands. This, apparently, was pretty disorderly. Thus, Paul's telling the women to save their questions for later - when they're in their homes, and can talk to their husbands without disturbing the peace.
That sounds right because orthodox Jews still practice a similar churching experience, with the men and women separated from each other. It would follow naturally that any early Christian practices stemmed from their Jewish bretheren, since they at the time would have considered themselves "true Jews" who understood that Christ fufilled Jewish prophesy.
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Posted: Thu Feb 09, 2006 6:50 pm
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