IcarusDream
linaloki
IcarusDream
linaloki
Why add "as with women"? That suggests specificity. Why change the word from one that definitively meant "sex" to one that didn't?
Euphemism. It was done often enough when referring to sexual things, even in the Law; where modern legislators try to be as direct as possible, tending not to euphemize, the Jews didn't seem to take such care.
Secrets = Testes in Deut 25:11.
Stones = Testes in Deut 23:1
Fountain = v****a in Lev 20:18
Flowers = Menstrual flow in Lev 15:33
Tell me if you need more.
You seem to be suggesting "as with women" was a metaphor... Since all your examples are metaphors. But a metaphor for what? The point is, if they just wanted to have a simple, blanket ban on male homosexual sex, they needed not to add "as with a woman", much less switch words from "sex" to "lie with".
I know that. My main point is that legislation back then isn't like it is today. Laws today regulating sex don't mention penetration of a woman's "cooter/hoo ha/poon/na na/punani/vajayjay/beaver/cooch" and certainly not "fountain," because today's legislators have learned that vague laws can be overturned easily simply because they are vague. The Hebrew scribes (or God, whoever you think wrote it) had no such stigmas against them, and were thus able to be more poetic in legal documentation, as their euphemizing demonstrates.
I know that if our legislators wrote laws using more colloquial terms and phrases, I'd have no problems understanding exactly what they meant, but all laws are only one lawsuit away from the wastebasket these days, and they have to be careful.
So, you're defending the phrase as a Hebrew "colloquialism," yes? The question is, what does that colloquialism mean? Considering the many customs they had, even dealing with the beds appropriate for sex, it seems to suggest less that there was poetry and more that there was something specific going on. Why would they have settled for poetry in that single verse when every other verse quite verily got to the point?
And an interesting point I had brought to my attention... is there not a list of rules similar to Leviticus 18 and 20 in Deuteronomy? Deuteronomy 27 repeats the incest and bestiality laws... but not the one supposedly dealing with homosexuality. And, even stranger, there is no law in Leviticus dealing with temple prostitutes, but there is in Deuteronomy. I find it strange, because the KJV uses the word "sodomites" in the same place in 1 Kings (I think, I can look it back up) that the NIV translates as "temple prostitutes". And, when I look at Deuteronomy 23:18-19 on this Hebrew/English website, I see this:
Deuteronomy 23:18-19
There shall be no harlot of the daughters of Israel, neither shall there be a sodomite of the sons of Israel. Thou shalt not bring the hire of a harlot, or the price of a dog, into the house of the LORD thy God for any vow; for even both these are an abomination unto the LORD thy God.
Now, if someone could read this for me...
יח לֹא-תִהְיֶה קְדֵשָׁה, מִבְּנוֹת יִשְׂרָאֵל; וְלֹא-יִהְיֶה קָדֵשׁ, מִבְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל.
יט לֹא-תָבִיא אֶתְנַן זוֹנָה וּמְחִיר כֶּלֶב, בֵּית יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ--לְכָל-נֶדֶר: כִּי תוֹעֲבַת יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, גַּם-שְׁנֵיהֶם.
I bet we'd find toevah in there. Note here where it talks of sodomites, but is equated to temple prostitutes in the NIV. The similarities are a little too coincidental, I think, to ignore.
IcarusDream
Quote:
So you feel that the Hebrew gives a blanket condemnation on male a**l sex?
At least. I'd think it'd condemn a man laying with another man in any way a man can lie sexually with a woman.
And what ways are those? Would that include snuggling? Hugging? Kissing? Where does "sexually" actually enter the equation in the original language, as opposed to simple "lying with"?