Dragonsbane1
- Quote
- Report Post
- Posted: Mon, 15 Jan 2007 08:08:36 +0000
PoeticVengeance
Dragonsbane1
PoeticVengeance
The use of the word homosexual in the NIV is actually a massive mistranslation.
The word in question was a word created by Paul to describe pedastry.
The word in question was a word created by Paul to describe pedastry.
Well I'm not arguing that point poetic, *shrugs* though if we're to accept other translations on this point, then we have to accept other translations on all points.... In this debate he laid out the NIV as what we were to go by.... Though there is still "Debate" about whether the translation was flawed or not, on both sides of that topic...
EDIT: though granted the term homosexual *IS* a newer term...
Yeah, homosexual was definately not in use until the late 1800s.
and with such a blatant translational issue, I figure even with the NIV being our primary discussion point, its relevant.
Well I did note that there was debate on both sides, on that topic I was pretty clear about that...even talking about the greek roots and such...Though it *IS* still being debated amongst scholars... as to what the "proper" translation should be... I was simply bringing up in context of this debate, the verse because it *WAS* NIV