Anouska
(?)Community Member
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- Posted: Wed, 02 Jan 2013 00:18:24 +0000
Chitsa Black
Anouska
Jacque De Molay
Anouska
If you want to sit in the corner playing hypothetical games with Macai, because you share the same rhetoric and reach the same conclusions and this makes you feel warm and fuzzy inside...fine, but its luring you into a false sense of security.
Quote:
Okay boys, that was pointless. Do you see what happens when you try to equate car ownership to reproduction and child support... it doesn't work.
STOP YELLING AT ME! crying
Sorry heart It's been a long thread.
But in all seriousness that question, with it's rules and selected variables, the question has no basis in the real world.
I don't often agree with Macai, but I'd have to agree with him in this. It does have basis in the real world. In no other situation do we hold another person responsible for the choices a completely different person makes for themselves. If I choose to drink a fifth of liquor and get behind the wheel of the car, I am the only person held accountable for my actions. Liquor companies and store owners aren't arrested and sent to jail because I chose to drink and drive.
Abortion is a choice. Conception isn't. Neither man or woman has control over whether they conceive or not. The only thing either one can do is either increase/decrease the chances of conception occurring by using birth control ect. But even that fails.
Now under Macai's qustion the traffic accident is caused by the buyer aka the woman. In reality the traffic accident, aka the conception is caused by the actions of both man and woman. The buyer and seller analogy is not great. It's like saying, the man sold the woman his sperm and she inappropriately used it thus causing an accident or conception. It doesn't work. Both parents are liable for the conception, why assign it just to the woman?
So the accident is caused by both parties which results in the conception of the baby. At this point the man's reproductive rights end, but the woman is extended because of her ability to have an abortion. This is product of nature not inequality, and what many people in this thread have done is assumed that the availability of abortion makes it a universal choice. However this complicated by two factors, one is belief and the second is time.
For example a pro-lifer would not have an abortion, so it is a fallacy to assume it is choice for her. Secondly, a person can only have an abortion before a certain point. The nature of accidental pregnancy means its unplanned, so can the mother be held accountable for not knowing she was pregnant...this is possible, there is a whole TV series dedicated to it on Discovery which is crazy...but I digress.
Now at this point I'm not sure what part of the car analogy was suppose to represent abortion, so clearly some variables have been wiped out from the equation to manipulate the outcome- which is very naughty of Macai dramallama
There is a kind of hypocrisy and fallacy when the assertion is made that only the men that have no choice after conception...well that's not true, because its the same for pro-life women or those women who found out too late.
So the woman gives birth and at this point both parents are held liable for the child. Either man or woman can pay child support depending on who stays and who walks away- and women do walk away from their kids in the same way men do.
Now going back to the question, the buyer and seller are both held liable for the buyer's accident, which creates the illusion of inequality. However when you look at the situation for what it is, the accident was caused by both buyer and seller, and the real outcome is that they are both held accountable.
To sum up, people assume inequality because of the availability of abortion. Which is kind of surprising considering its long history controversy and the strong opinions it evokes.